Are Macbeth’s paranoia due to his own weakness or a consequence of what he did?
Macbeth's paranoia comes to him because he is both weak emotionally and its also a consequence. Since the begining he really didnt want to kill Duncan he let his wife's ambition drive him to it. You can tell he's emotionally weak because he lets guilt get to him. His paranoia is a consequence to what he did. I believe that his wife should have killed Duncan instead of Macbeth because it was her idea.
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